The San Remo Convention claim is usually made by Arabists (and Jordanian Nationalists) Jordan got the short end of the stick, and has less arable land than Israel. Not only is this not true, but it shows the truth of Israel's miracle. So, lets compare, shall we? Jordan is about 3 times the size of Israel, and 22% of it is Arable land. That is 7,588.9 Square Mile s. Jordan is widely in disrepair and the amount of Arable land has not changed much. Israel is 1/3rd the size of Israel, but 40% of its land is Arable. This was not the original situation; Judea and Samaria and Gaza have arable areas, and in the original "two-state solution" where Israel gets roughly all the land controlled today by it, the PLO and Hamas, Israel had a lot of agricultural land. Still, the British government state in the 1937 White Paper , used to refuse Jewish immigration to Mandate Palestine, the British government claimed only 2 million people could stay alive in the region without mass starvati...
It is universally accepted by historians the name “Palestine” in terms of the region of the holy-land was first used by Romans, and gathered steam during their campaign to change the culture of the area and get rid fo the Jewish presence. This is not an attack on Palestinians anymore than pointing out the renaming of Native American sites in the US is an attack on America. This is especially true being the Arabs which now constitute who is called Palestinian were not even in the area yet. Origins of the Name “Palestine” Encyclopedia of Jewish and Israeli history, politics and culture, with biographies, statistics, articles and documents on topics from anti-Semitism to Zionism. https://www.jewishvirtuallibrary.org/origin-of-quot-palestine-quot But to Wikipedia, “Palestine” is a name tracing back to Egyptian times, and used continuously until Rome, even though no one can even speak ancient Egyptian out loud in modern times, let alone know what they meant. They got that source from ...
"Palestinians", as it is defined today, is a new term. You can think whatever you want about Israel today, or the Levant or if Pluto is a planet, but that is objectively true. Objectively, Palestinian referred originally to anyone living in the territory of modern Israel and the West Bank, including some Northern Syria. It was objectively a new term as used today, to refer to Arabs in the land of Israel. So, why is it wikipedia, the Palestinian Authority, the "Squad" as they call themselves, and tens of millions of people around the world deny the basic history (shown with proof below)? Is it not the most egregious example of Orwellian history changing a word, once referencing anyone in the area, to now reference a people which were not a people until the 1940's (and at best seem to only be binded together as the ones which aren't Israel and not under their neighbors), most of which had family move into the area of modern Israel during the 1800's yet are...
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